Managing-Cloud-Security Examinations Actual Questions - Managing-Cloud-Security Valid Exam Sims

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WGU Managing Cloud Security (JY02) Sample Questions (Q144-Q149):

NEW QUESTION # 144
Which design pillar encompasses the ability to support development and run workloads effectively, gain insights into operations, and continuously improve supporting processes to deliver business value?

Answer: C

Explanation:
TheOperational Excellencepillar emphasizes practices that allow organizations to develop, deploy, and operate workloads effectively. It includes monitoring operations, responding to incidents, and continuously improving processes. By embedding feedback loops, organizations enhance agility and ensure that technology supports business value.
Performance efficiency deals with using computing resources efficiently, reliability ensures system availability, and sustainability focuses on environmental responsibility. While important, these do not encompass the process-driven improvements at the heart of operational excellence.
Operational excellence ensures that organizations can adapt quickly to changes, implement automation, and drive consistent improvements across cloud workloads. It is a key principle in cloud frameworks like AWS Well-Architected, Microsoft CAF, and Google's Reliability Engineering practices.


NEW QUESTION # 145
Which document, commonly existing in an IT enterprise, can be used to speed up the process of identifying a potential cloud service provider (CSP)?

Answer: C

Explanation:
Entity relationship and data flow diagrams can significantly speed up the process of identifying a suitable cloud service provider. Managing Cloud guidance explains that these diagrams document how applications, systems, and data interact across the enterprise.
By understanding data sensitivity, integration points, trust boundaries, and workloads, organizations can quickly determine which cloud service models, security controls, and compliance capabilities are required from a CSP. This enables efficient evaluation and comparison of providers.
Physical plant blueprints and egress safety designs are facilities-related documents, while BCDR plans focus on recovery strategies rather than provider selection. Therefore, entity relationship and data flow diagrams are the most useful documents for accelerating CSP identification.


NEW QUESTION # 146
Which cloud architecture model provides application development services?

Answer: B

Explanation:
Platform as a Service (PaaS) provides application development services in cloud environments. Managing Cloud documentation explains that PaaS delivers development frameworks, programming languages, libraries, databases, and testing tools required to build and deploy applications.
This model eliminates the need to manage infrastructure and operating systems, allowing developers to rapidly create, test, and deploy applications. PaaS also supports scalability and integration with other cloud services.
SaaS delivers completed applications, IaaS provides raw infrastructure, and SECaaS focuses on security services. Therefore, PaaS is the correct model for application development services.


NEW QUESTION # 147
Which regulation defines requirements for the electronic transfer of healthcare data to a cloud service provider?

Answer: D

Explanation:
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) defines requirements for the electronic transfer of healthcare data to a cloud service provider. Managing Cloud documentation explains that HIPAA governs the protection, transmission, and storage of protected health information (PHI).
HIPAA establishes administrative, technical, and physical safeguards to ensure confidentiality, integrity, and availability of healthcare data. When healthcare organizations use cloud services, both the organization and the cloud provider must ensure compliance with HIPAA requirements.
The other regulations do not apply to healthcare data transfer. Stark Law addresses physician self-referral, the Healthcare Quality Improvement Law focuses on peer review, and GLBA applies to financial institutions.
Therefore, HIPAA is the correct answer.


NEW QUESTION # 148
Developers need to be aware of a common application programming interface (API) threat that occurs when attackers send malicious code through a form input to a web application so that it may then be executed.
Which type of attack represents this API threat?

Answer: B

Explanation:
The described scenario is aninjection attack. Injection occurs when unvalidated input-such as SQL commands, script code, or OS instructions-is sent to an application through API forms or parameters. If the application fails to sanitize input, the attacker's code may be executed with full system privileges.
On-path attacks intercept communication, credential attacks target authentication, and denial-of-service floods services. None involve code execution via unvalidated input.
Injection is a top risk in OWASP API Security Top 10. Developers must implement input validation, parameterized queries, and least privilege principles to mitigate this risk. API gateways and WAFs provide additional layers of protection but cannot replace secure coding practices.


NEW QUESTION # 149
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